The term that describes the inflammation of a vein ( Phleb = vein & itis = inflammation).
Answer: Phlebitis
The term that describes the inflammation of a vein ( Phleb = vein & itis = inflammation).
Answer: Phlebitis
Answer: Phlebitis
The term describing turning the palm upward or forward
The term describing turning the palm upward or forward
Answer: Supination
The term that is used to describe practices and systems of health care used to supplement tradition Western medicine
The term that is used to describe practices and systems of health care used to supplement tradition Western medicine
Answer: Complementary medicine
An exfoliative screening biopsy for the detection and diagnosis of conditions of the cervix and surrounding tissues
An exfoliative screening biopsy for the detection and diagnosis of conditions of the cervix and surrounding tissues
Answer: Pap smear
Narrowing of the opening of the foreskin so that it cannot be retracted to expose the glans penis is known as
Narrowing of the opening of the foreskin so that it cannot be retracted to expose the glans penis is known as
Answer: Phimosis
Which of these sexually transmitted disease is a bacterial infection
Which of these sexually transmitted disease is a bacterial infection
Answer: Gonorrhea
The abdominal region located below the stomach is known as what region (low = hypo/ stomach = gastr & ic = pertaining to).
The abdominal region located below the stomach is known as what region (low = hypo/ stomach = gastr & ic = pertaining to).
Answer: Hypogastric
___ is a progressive autoimmune disorder characterized by inflammation that causes demyelination of the myelin sheath.
___ is a progressive autoimmune disorder characterized by inflammation that causes demyelination of the myelin sheath.
Answer: Multiple sclerosis
Enlarged and swollen veins at the lower end of the esophagus are known as
Enlarged and swollen veins at the lower end of the esophagus are known as
Answer: Esophageal varices
Which condition is breast cancer at its earliest stage before the cancer has broken through the wall of the milk duct
Which condition is breast cancer at its earliest stage before the cancer has broken through the wall of the milk duct
Answer: Ductal carcinoma in situ
The instrument used to examine the external ear canal is know as an (Hint ear examination )
The instrument used to examine the external ear canal is know as an (Hint ear examination )
Answer: Otoscope
Which procedure is performed to treat spider veins
Which procedure is performed to treat spider veins
Answer: Sclerotherapy
A band of fibrous tissue that holds structures together abnormally is
A band of fibrous tissue that holds structures together abnormally is
Answer: Adhesion
A brief disturbance in brain function in which there is a loss of awareness often described as a staring episode is known as ( loss of awareness)
A brief disturbance in brain function in which there is a loss of awareness often described as a staring episode is known as ( loss of awareness)
Answer: Absence
Which condition has purple discolorations on the skin due to bleeding underneath the skin (Hint purple).
Which condition has purple discolorations on the skin due to bleeding underneath the skin (Hint purple).
Answer: Purpura
Any substance that the body regards as being foreign
Any substance that the body regards as being foreign
Answer: Antigen
A disorder of the adrenal glands due to excessive production of aldosterone
A disorder of the adrenal glands due to excessive production of aldosterone
Answer: Conn's syndrome
The bluish discoloration of the skin caused by a lack of adequate oxygen is known as (cyan = blue & abnormal condition = oasis).
The bluish discoloration of the skin caused by a lack of adequate oxygen is known as (cyan = blue & abnormal condition = oasis).
Answer: cyanosis
The term that means vomiting
The term that means vomiting
Answer: Emesis
The term that describes inflammation of the gallbladder( Cholecyst = gallbladder).
The term that describes inflammation of the gallbladder( Cholecyst = gallbladder).
Answer: Cholecystitis
An autoimmune disorder characterized by a severe reaction to foods containing gluten is known as
An autoimmune disorder characterized by a severe reaction to foods containing gluten is known as
Answer: Celiac disease
Which combining form means red
Which combining form means red
Answer: erythr/o
A sonogram is the image created by
A sonogram is the image created by
Answer: Ultrasonography
When medication is placed under the tongue and allowed to dissolve slowly this is known as
When medication is placed under the tongue and allowed to dissolve slowly this is known as
Answer: Sublingual administration
Which substance is commonly known as good cholesterol
Which substance is commonly known as good cholesterol
Answer: High-density lipoprotein cholesterol
Which heart chamber receives oxygen-poor blood from all tissues, except the lungs
Which heart chamber receives oxygen-poor blood from all tissues, except the lungs
Answer: Right Atrium
The combining form that means vertebra or vertebral column
The combining form that means vertebra or vertebral column
Answer: Spondyl/o
In A ___ fracture, a bone is splintered or crushed.
In A ___ fracture, a bone is splintered or crushed.
Answer: Comminuted
What is caused by the failure of the bones of the limbs to grow to an appropriate length
What is caused by the failure of the bones of the limbs to grow to an appropriate length
Answer: Short stature
During her pregnancy, Ruth had a skin condition commonly known as the mask of pregnancy. The medical term for this condition is
During her pregnancy, Ruth had a skin condition commonly known as the mask of pregnancy. The medical term for this condition is
Answer: Chloasma
A form of vasculitis that affects the arms, upper body, neck, and head with symptoms including headache and touch sensitivity is known as
A form of vasculitis that affects the arms, upper body, neck, and head with symptoms including headache and touch sensitivity is known as
Answer: Temporal arteritis
Fine muscle tremors, rigidity, and a slow or shuffling gait are all symptoms of the progressive condition known as
Fine muscle tremors, rigidity, and a slow or shuffling gait are all symptoms of the progressive condition known as
Answer: Parkinson's disease
Which term refers to a class of drugs that relieves pain without affecting consciousness
Which term refers to a class of drugs that relieves pain without affecting consciousness
Answer: Analgesic
A___ known as a boil is a large, tender, swollen area caused by a staphylococcal infection around a hair follicle or sebaceous gland.
A___ known as a boil is a large, tender, swollen area caused by a staphylococcal infection around a hair follicle or sebaceous gland.
Answer: Furuncle
____ involves compression of nerves and blood vessels due to swelling within the enclosed space created by the fascia that separates groups of muscles.
____ involves compression of nerves and blood vessels due to swelling within the enclosed space created by the fascia that separates groups of muscles.
Answer: Compartment syndrome
Which of these diseases is transmitted to humans by the bite of an infected black legged tick
Which of these diseases is transmitted to humans by the bite of an infected black legged tick
Answer: Lyme disease
A malignant tumor usually involving the upper shaft of long bones, the pelvis, or knee.
A malignant tumor usually involving the upper shaft of long bones, the pelvis, or knee.
Answer: Osteosarcoma
Long, slender spiral-shaped bacteria that have flexible walls and are capable of movement
Long, slender spiral-shaped bacteria that have flexible walls and are capable of movement
Answer: Spirochetes
What is commonly known as the collar bone
What is commonly known as the collar bone
Answer: Clavicle
A normal scar resulting from the healing of a wound
A normal scar resulting from the healing of a wound
Answer: Cicatrix
The medical term for the congenital condition commonly known as clubfoot
The medical term for the congenital condition commonly known as clubfoot
Answer: Talipes
The ______ patrol the body, searching for antigens that produce infections. When such a cell is found, these cells grab, swallow, and internally break apart the captured antigen.
The ______ patrol the body, searching for antigens that produce infections. When such a cell is found, these cells grab, swallow, and internally break apart the captured antigen.
Answer: Dendritic Cells
The ______ receives the sound vibration and relays them to the auditory nerve fibers.
The ______ receives the sound vibration and relays them to the auditory nerve fibers.
Answer: Organ of Corti
Specialized cells that play an important role in blood clotting
Specialized cells that play an important role in blood clotting
Answer: Thrombocytes
Slight paralysis of one side of the body is known as
Slight paralysis of one side of the body is known as
Answer: Hemiparesis
A bone disorder of unknown cause that destroys normal bone structure and replaces it with fibrous tissue.
A bone disorder of unknown cause that destroys normal bone structure and replaces it with fibrous tissue.
Answer: Fibrous dysplasia
A physician who specializes in physical medicine and rehabilitation with the focus on restoring function
A physician who specializes in physical medicine and rehabilitation with the focus on restoring function
Answer: Physiatrist
A group of disorders involving the part of the brain that control thought, memory, and language.
A group of disorders involving the part of the brain that control thought, memory, and language.
Answer: Alzheimer's disease
The common skin disorder that is characterized by flare-ups in which red papules covered with silvery scales occur on the elbows, knees, scalp, back, or buttocks
The common skin disorder that is characterized by flare-ups in which red papules covered with silvery scales occur on the elbows, knees, scalp, back, or buttocks
Answer: Psoriasis
An abnormal increase in the number of red cells in the blood due to excess production of these cells by the bone marrow (increase = poly (many) cyth (has no meaning) & blood = emia).
An abnormal increase in the number of red cells in the blood due to excess production of these cells by the bone marrow (increase = poly (many) cyth (has no meaning) & blood = emia).
Answer: Polycythemia
Mr. Ramirez had a heart attack. His physician recorded this as
Mr. Ramirez had a heart attack. His physician recorded this as
Answer: A myocardial infarction
The combing form that means old age
The combing form that means old age
Answer: Pesby/o
Drooping of the upper eyelid that is usually due to paralysis
Drooping of the upper eyelid that is usually due to paralysis
Answer: Ptosis
The term for an inflammation of the sheath surrounding a tendon is ( tendon = ten/o, synovial membrane = syno & inflammation = itis).
The term for an inflammation of the sheath surrounding a tendon is ( tendon = ten/o, synovial membrane = syno & inflammation = itis).
Answer: Tenosynovitis
Henry was diagnosed as having an inflammation of the bone marrow and adjacent bone. Which term describes this condition ( bone = oste/o, bone marrow = myel, & inflammation = itis).
Henry was diagnosed as having an inflammation of the bone marrow and adjacent bone. Which term describes this condition ( bone = oste/o, bone marrow = myel, & inflammation = itis).
Answer: Osteomyelitis
The condition of __________ is commonly known as tooth decay (Hint: tooth decay).
The condition of __________ is commonly known as tooth decay (Hint: tooth decay).
Answer: Dental caries
Mrs. Valladares has a bacterial infection of the lining of her heart. This condition is known as bacterial ( within = endo, heart = cardi & itis = inflammation).
Mrs. Valladares has a bacterial infection of the lining of her heart. This condition is known as bacterial ( within = endo, heart = cardi & itis = inflammation).
Answer: Endocarditis
When he fell, Manuel tore the posterior femoral muscles in his left leg. This is known as what kind of injury
When he fell, Manuel tore the posterior femoral muscles in his left leg. This is known as what kind of injury
Answer: Hamstring
Movement of a limb away from the midline of the body ( Hint: away from the midline).
Movement of a limb away from the midline of the body ( Hint: away from the midline).
Answer: Abduction
Performed as a definitive test to determine if Alice Wilkinson has osteoporosis
Performed as a definitive test to determine if Alice Wilkinson has osteoporosis
Answer: Dual x-ray absorptiometry
The term that means toward or nearer the midline.
The term that means toward or nearer the midline.
Answer: Medial
The plane that divides the body vertically into unequal left and right portions. ( Hint: vertically into unequal left and right portions).
The plane that divides the body vertically into unequal left and right portions. ( Hint: vertically into unequal left and right portions).
Answer: Sagittal
The tissue death of an artery or arteries ( arteri/0 = artery or arteries a & tissue death = necrosis).
The tissue death of an artery or arteries ( arteri/0 = artery or arteries a & tissue death = necrosis).
Answer: arterionecrosis
The surgical freeing of a kidney from adhesions is known as (Nephr/o = kidney & lysis = setting free or freeing).
The surgical freeing of a kidney from adhesions is known as (Nephr/o = kidney & lysis = setting free or freeing).
Answer: Nephrolysis
An unfavorable response due to prescribed medical treatment.
An unfavorable response due to prescribed medical treatment.
Answer: Iatrogenic Illness
The hormone__________ stimulates uterine contractions during childbirth (oxy = swift & tocin = labor).
The hormone__________ stimulates uterine contractions during childbirth (oxy = swift & tocin = labor).
Answer: oxytocin
________ is characterized by exophthalmos
________ is characterized by exophthalmos
Answer: Graves' disease
A specialist who provides medical care to women during pregnancy, childbirth, and immediately thereafter
A specialist who provides medical care to women during pregnancy, childbirth, and immediately thereafter
Answer: Obstetrician
The condition which is thinner than average bone density, causes the patient to be at an increased risk of developing osteoporosis (oste/o = bone & penia = deficiency).
The condition which is thinner than average bone density, causes the patient to be at an increased risk of developing osteoporosis (oste/o = bone & penia = deficiency).
Answer: Osteopenia
Which statement is accurate regarding cystic fibrosis
Which statement is accurate regarding cystic fibrosis
Answer: a genetic disorder that affects the lungs and digestive system
The combining form Metr/o means
The combining form Metr/o means
Answer: Uterus
The surgical fixation of a prolapsed vagina to a surrounding structure (vagina = colp/o and surgical fixation = pexy).
The surgical fixation of a prolapsed vagina to a surrounding structure (vagina = colp/o and surgical fixation = pexy).
Answer: Colpopexy
The condition in which excess cerebrospinal fluid accumulates in the ventricles of the brain is known as ( hydr/o = water (fluid) cephal = head (brain) and -us = singular ending).
The condition in which excess cerebrospinal fluid accumulates in the ventricles of the brain is known as ( hydr/o = water (fluid) cephal = head (brain) and -us = singular ending).
Answer: Hydrocephalus
Inflammation of the pancreas ( pancreas = pancreas and inflammation = itis).
Inflammation of the pancreas ( pancreas = pancreas and inflammation = itis).
Answer: Pancreatitis
A woman who has borne one viable child is referred to as (Primi = first and para = to bring forth) viable = having reach a development as to be capable of living.
A woman who has borne one viable child is referred to as (Primi = first and para = to bring forth) viable = having reach a development as to be capable of living.
Answer: Primipara
Any restriction to the opening of the mouth caused by trauma, surgery, or radiation associated with the treatment of oral cancer
Any restriction to the opening of the mouth caused by trauma, surgery, or radiation associated with the treatment of oral cancer
Answer: Trismus
The removal of a body part or the destruction of its function through the use of surgery, hormones, drugs, heat, chemicals, electrocautery, or other methods.
The removal of a body part or the destruction of its function through the use of surgery, hormones, drugs, heat, chemicals, electrocautery, or other methods.
Answer: Ablation
A blood clot attached to the interior wall of a vein or artery is known as a ( clot = thromb and us = singular noun ending).
A blood clot attached to the interior wall of a vein or artery is known as a ( clot = thromb and us = singular noun ending).
Answer: Thrombus
Which sexually transmitted disease can be detected through the VDRL blood test before the lesion appear
Which sexually transmitted disease can be detected through the VDRL blood test before the lesion appear
Answer: Syphilis
An autoimmune disease in which the body's own antibodies attack and destroy the cells of the thyroid gland
An autoimmune disease in which the body's own antibodies attack and destroy the cells of the thyroid gland
Answer: Hashimoto's disease
The acute respiratory infection known______ is characterized in children and infants by obstruction of the larynx, hoarseness, and a barking cough.
The acute respiratory infection known______ is characterized in children and infants by obstruction of the larynx, hoarseness, and a barking cough.
Answer: Croup
Which of these conditions is commonly known as a bruise (Ecchym = pouring out of juice & osis = condition).
Which of these conditions is commonly known as a bruise (Ecchym = pouring out of juice & osis = condition).
Answer: Ecchymosis
The term describing the prolapse of a kidney is (Nephr/o = kidney & ptosis = prolapse, droop or sag).
The term describing the prolapse of a kidney is (Nephr/o = kidney & ptosis = prolapse, droop or sag).
Answer: Nephroptosis
The term that means, abnormal enlargement of the liver ( Hepat/o = liver & enlargement = megaly).
The term that means, abnormal enlargement of the liver ( Hepat/o = liver & enlargement = megaly).
Answer: hepatomegaly
Another term for conventional, or Western, medical practices and systems of health care is what kind of medicine
Another term for conventional, or Western, medical practices and systems of health care is what kind of medicine
Answer: Allopathic
The procedure in which an anastomosis is created between the upper portion of the stomach and the duodenum is an (stomach = gastr/o, duodenum = duodenum and anastomosis = surgical connection which = ostomy which is also the surgical creation)
The procedure in which an anastomosis is created between the upper portion of the stomach and the duodenum is an (stomach = gastr/o, duodenum = duodenum and anastomosis = surgical connection which = ostomy which is also the surgical creation)
Answer: Gastroduodenostomy
The suffix that means blood or blood condition
The suffix that means blood or blood condition
Answer: -emia
The term that describes weakness or wearing away of body tissues and structures caused by pathology or by disuse of the muscle or a long period of time
The term that describes weakness or wearing away of body tissues and structures caused by pathology or by disuse of the muscle or a long period of time
Answer: Atrophy
Inflammation of the myelin sheath of peripheral nerves, characterized by rapidly worsening muscle weakness that can lead to temporary paralysis
Inflammation of the myelin sheath of peripheral nerves, characterized by rapidly worsening muscle weakness that can lead to temporary paralysis
Answer: Guillain-Barre Syndrome
The processes through which the body maintains a constant internal environment are known as
The processes through which the body maintains a constant internal environment are known as
Answer: Homeostasis
Which form of anemia is a genetic disorder
Which form of anemia is a genetic disorder
Answer: Sickle Cell
The abnormal development or growth of cells is known as ( abnormal = bad which = dys & development or growth = plasia).
The abnormal development or growth of cells is known as ( abnormal = bad which = dys & development or growth = plasia).
Answer: Dysplasia
The grating sound heard when the ends of a broken bone move together is known as
The grating sound heard when the ends of a broken bone move together is known as
Answer: Crepitation
A collection of ups within a body cavity is known as
A collection of ups within a body cavity is known as
Answer: Empyema
The presence of glucose in the urine is known as (Glycos = glucose & urine = uria).
The presence of glucose in the urine is known as (Glycos = glucose & urine = uria).
Answer: Glycosuria
The Suffix that means surgical fixation
The Suffix that means surgical fixation
Answer: Pexy
An abnormally slow heart rate of less than 60 beats per minute known as ( Brady = slow, card = heart & ia = abnormal condition).
An abnormally slow heart rate of less than 60 beats per minute known as ( Brady = slow, card = heart & ia = abnormal condition).
Answer: Bradycardia
A abnormally rapid rate of respiration usually of more than 20 breaths per minute is known as (Tachy = Rapid and Pnea = breathing)
A abnormally rapid rate of respiration usually of more than 20 breaths per minute is known as (Tachy = Rapid and Pnea = breathing)
Answer: Tachypnea
All patient information and records are what?
All patient information and records are what?
Answer: Confidential
In medicine, when a patient gives permission to a healthcare provider to provide treatment, he or she is giving what?
In medicine, when a patient gives permission to a healthcare provider to provide treatment, he or she is giving what?
Answer: Consent
A number is assigned to each patient's medical record in what type of system?
A number is assigned to each patient's medical record in what type of system?
Answer: Numeric
What is the simplest type of numeric filing system?
What is the simplest type of numeric filing system?
Answer: Straight Numeric Filing
What type of report in a medical record describes a surgical procedure?
What type of report in a medical record describes a surgical procedure?
Answer: Operative Report
What is described by an Operative Report?
What is described by an Operative Report?
Answer: Surgical Procedure
What type of consent forms are included in a medical record?
What type of consent forms are included in a medical record?
Answer: Informed
Who may request a patient's medical records from another physician or healthcare provider?
Who may request a patient's medical records from another physician or healthcare provider?
Answer: A patient
What type of medical record shows patient information in reverse chronological order?
What type of medical record shows patient information in reverse chronological order?
Answer: SOMR
Patient information is placed in which order in a source-oriented medical record?
Patient information is placed in which order in a source-oriented medical record?
Answer: Reverse-chronological
What does the "O" stand for in the acronym SOAP?
What does the "O" stand for in the acronym SOAP?
Answer: Objective
What does the "S" in the acronym SOAP stand for?
What does the "S" in the acronym SOAP stand for?
Answer: Subjective
What type of medical records are considered to be archives?
What type of medical records are considered to be archives?
Answer: Closed
What are the three most commonly used filing systems?
What are the three most commonly used filing systems?
Answer: Alphabetic, Numeric, Subject Matter
What document allows an agent or representative to act on behalf of a patient?
What document allows an agent or representative to act on behalf of a patient?
Answer: Power of Attorney
What document allows patients to request that life-sustaining treatment and nutritional support not be used to prolong life?
What document allows patients to request that life-sustaining treatment and nutritional support not be used to prolong life?
Answer: Living Will
Which component of a Problem-Oriented Medical Record (POMR) describes a course of action for each identified problem?
Which component of a Problem-Oriented Medical Record (POMR) describes a course of action for each identified problem?
Answer: Plan
What are the four components of a Problem-Oriented Medical Record (POMR)?
What are the four components of a Problem-Oriented Medical Record (POMR)?
Answer: Database, Problem List, Plan, Progress Notes
What component of a medical record contains all records and documentation related to a request for a second opinion on a particular patient's case?
What component of a medical record contains all records and documentation related to a request for a second opinion on a particular patient's case?
Answer: Consultation Report
What component of a medical record contains a patient's identifying information, such as name, address, phone number, date of birth, insurance information, and Social Security number?
What component of a medical record contains a patient's identifying information, such as name, address, phone number, date of birth, insurance information, and Social Security number?
Answer: Patient Registration
Which abbreviation stands for a diagnostic test?
Which abbreviation stands for a diagnostic test?
a. TB
b. PFT
c. SOB
d. URI
Answer: C
Which abbreviation stands for a life threatening condition in babies?
Which abbreviation stands for a life threatening condition in babies?
a. TB
b. SARS
c. SIDS
d. COPD
Answer: D
Which abbreviation stands for a diagnostic laboratory test?
Which abbreviation stands for a diagnostic laboratory test?
a. CPR
b. ENT
c. ARDS
d. ABGs
Answer: A
Which of the following medications improves the ability to cough up mucus?
Which of the following medications improves the ability to cough up mucus?
a. expectorant
b. bronchodilator
c. antitussive
d. antihistamine
Answer: B
Which of the following medications relaxes muscle spasms in the bronchial tube?
Which of the following medications relaxes muscle spasms in the bronchial tube?
a. expectorant
b. bronchodilator
c. antitussive
d. antihistamine
Answer: B
Which of the following medications relieves the urge to cough?
Which of the following medications relieves the urge to cough?
a. expectorant
b. bronchodilator
c. antitussive
d. antihistamine
Answer: A
Which of the following medications treats an allergy attack?
Which of the following medications treats an allergy attack?
a. expectorant
b. bronchodilator
c. antitussive
d. antihistamine
Answer: D
Which kind of medication is suspended in a mist in order to be inhaled?
Which kind of medication is suspended in a mist in order to be inhaled?
a. endotracheal medications
b. aerosol therapy
c. pulmonary medications
d. postural drainage
Answer: B
Which therapeutic procedure uses gravity to encourage the removal of secretions from the bronchi?
Which therapeutic procedure uses gravity to encourage the removal of secretions from the bronchi?
a. postural drainage
b. intermittent positive pressure breathing
c. thoracentesis
d. Heimlich maneuver
Answer: A
Which of the following is an emergency treatment given to patients when their breathing and heart stops?
Which of the following is an emergency treatment given to patients when their breathing and heart stops?
a. Heimlich maneuver
b. thoracentesis
c. cardiopulmonary resuscitation
d. intermittent positive pressure breathing
Answer: C
Which of the following is a machine that breathes for a patient who is unable to breathe on his or her own?
Which of the following is a machine that breathes for a patient who is unable to breathe on his or her own?
a. postural drainage
b. endotracheal intubation
c. aerosol therapy
d. ventilator
Answer: D
Which of the following diagnostic procedures is a test for malignant cells?
Which of the following diagnostic procedures is a test for malignant cells?
a. sputum cytology
b. sputum culture & sensitivity
c. pulmonary function test
d. arterial blood gas
Answer: A
Which diagnostic procedure measures the oxygen level in the blood?
Which diagnostic procedure measures the oxygen level in the blood?
a. ventilation-perfusion scan
b. oximetry
c. bronchography
d. polysomnography
Answer: B
Which diagnostic procedure monitors a patient while sleeping to identify sleep apnea?
Which diagnostic procedure monitors a patient while sleeping to identify sleep apnea?
a. pulmonary function test
b. ventilation perfusion scan
c. polysomnography
d. bronchoscopy
Answer: C
Which of the following diagnostic tests is a nuclear medicine procedure especially useful in identifying pulmonary emboli?
Which of the following diagnostic tests is a nuclear medicine procedure especially useful in identifying pulmonary emboli?
a. spirometry
b. polysomnography
c. pulmonary function test
d. ventilation perfusion scan
Answer: D
Which of the following diagnostic tests is used to diagnose cystic fibrosis?
Which of the following diagnostic tests is used to diagnose cystic fibrosis?
a. sweat test
b. spirometry
c. pulmonary angiography
d. sputum cytology
Answer: A
Which condition is characterized by the destruction of the walls of the alveoli resulting in over expanded air sacs?
Which condition is characterized by the destruction of the walls of the alveoli resulting in over expanded air sacs?
a. emphysema
b. hisoplasmosis
c. pneumoconiosis
d. empyema
Answer: A
Which of the following conditions may result in a collapsed lung?
Which of the following conditions may result in a collapsed lung?
a. pulmonary embolism
b. tuberculosis
c. pleural effusion
d. pneumothorax
Answer: D
Which serious lung infection causes the alveoli to fill up with fluid?
Which serious lung infection causes the alveoli to fill up with fluid?
a. tuberculosis
b. pneumoconiosis
c. pneumonia
d. pulmonary fibrosis
Answer: C
Which of the following conditions may cause an infarct in the lungs?
Which of the following conditions may cause an infarct in the lungs?
a. pulmonary fibrosis
b. pulmonary emboli
c. pulmonary edema
d. pneumonia
Answer: B
Which of the following conditions is a fungal infection?
Which of the following conditions is a fungal infection?
a. histoplasmosis
b. adult respiratory distress syndrome
c. diphtheria
d. Mycoplasma pneumonia
Answer: A
Which of the following is an inherited condition?
Which of the following is an inherited condition?
a. emphysema
b. atelectasis
c. histoplasmosis
d. cystic fibrosis
Answer: D
Which of the following conditions is not a type of pneumoconiosis?
Which of the following conditions is not a type of pneumoconiosis?
a. anthracosis
b. silicosis
c. cyanosis
d. asbestosis
Answer: C
Which of the following conditions causes constriction of the bronchial airways by bronchospasms?
Which of the following conditions causes constriction of the bronchial airways by bronchospasms?
a. diphtheria
b. pertussis
c. croup
d. asthma
Answer: B
Which condition is commonly called walking pneumonia?
Which condition is commonly called walking pneumonia?
a. histoplasmosis pneumonia
b. Mycoplasma pneumonia
c. pulmonary edema pneumonia
d. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Answer: B
Which term means open or unblocked?
Which term means open or unblocked?
a. patent
b. percussion
c. asphyxia
d. stridor
Answer: A
Mucus coughed up from the respiratory tract is called:
Mucus coughed up from the respiratory tract is called:
a. phlegm
b. stridor
c. hemoptysis
d. sputum
Answer: D
Which of the following terms means a high pitched breathing sound?
Which of the following terms means a high pitched breathing sound?
a. rhonchi
b. epistaxis
c. stridor
d. rales
Answer: C
Which of the following terms means a nosebleed?
Which of the following terms means a nosebleed?
a. stridor
b. epistaxis
c. orthopnea
d. hemoptysis
Answer: B
Which of the following terms is also called suffocation?
Which of the following terms is also called suffocation?
a. asphyxia
b. Cheyne-Stokes respiration
c. aspiration
d. hypoventilation
Answer: A
Which of the following statements regarding respiratory rate is NOT true?
Which of the following statements regarding respiratory rate is NOT true?
a. When carbon dioxide levels rise, we breathe more rapidly to expel the excess.
b. Respiratory rate is regulated by the level of carbon dioxide in the blood.
c. When carbon dioxide levels fall, we breathe more rapidly to bring in more.
d. Medical conditions like pneumonia or brain injury will affect respiratory rate.
Answer: C
Which of the following statements regarding the action of the diaphragm is NOT true?
Which of the following statements regarding the action of the diaphragm is NOT true?
a. When the diaphragm contracts it moves downward.
b. The intercostals muscles assist inhalation by raising the rib cage.
c. Air flows into the lungs with exhalation
d. A quiet, unforced exhalation is a passive process because it does not require any muscle contraction.
Answer: C
Which of the following statements regarding the lungs is NOT true?
Which of the following statements regarding the lungs is NOT true?
a. The lungs are divided into lobes.
b. Serous fluid is located between the two layers of the pleura.
c. Lungs are located within the pleural cavity.
d. The mediastinum of the thoracic cavity is located between the lungs and diaphragm.
Answer: D
The pulmonary capillaries tightly encase the:
The pulmonary capillaries tightly encase the:
a. bronchioles
b. main bronchi
c. apex
d. alveoli
Answer: D
Which of the following choices presents the airways in anatomical order?
Which of the following choices presents the airways in anatomical order?
a. larynx, trachea, pharynx, bronchial tubes
b. bronchial tubes, trachea, pharynx, larynx
c. pharynx, trachea, larynx, bronchial tubes
d. pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchial tubes
Answer: C
Air is carried between the pharynx and bronchial tubes in the:
Air is carried between the pharynx and bronchial tubes in the:
a. epiglottis
b. trachea
c. nasal cavity
d. esophagus
Answer: B
The palatine and lingual tonsils are located in the:
The palatine and lingual tonsils are located in the:
a. oropharynx
b. laryngopharynx
c. nasopharynx
d. hypopharynx
Answer: A
The section of pharynx that is associated with the mouth is the:
The section of pharynx that is associated with the mouth is the:
a. nasopharynx
b. laryngopharynx
c. oropharynx
d. hypopharynx
Answer: C
The small hairs that line the opening to the nose and the airways are called:
The small hairs that line the opening to the nose and the airways are called:
a. sinuses
b. nares
c. speta
d. cilia
Answer: D
The two external openings into the nasal cavity are called the:
The two external openings into the nasal cavity are called the:
a. nares
b. cilia
c. sinuses
d. nasal septum
Answer: A
The _____ is the roof of the mouth and the floor of the nasal cavity.
The _____ is the roof of the mouth and the floor of the nasal cavity.
a. septum
b. nares
c. palate
d. sinuses
Answer: C
The paranasal sinuses are located within the _____.
The paranasal sinuses are located within the _____.
a. nasal cavity
b. facial bones
c. nasopharynx
d. inner ear
Answer: B
Inhalation brings in fresh _____ and exhalation removes _____.
Inhalation brings in fresh _____ and exhalation removes _____.
a. carbon dioxide, oxygen
b. oxygen, nitrogen
c. oxygen, carbon dioxide
d. nitrogen, carbon dioxide
Answer: C
The respiratory system works in conjunction with the _____ system to deliver oxygen to the cells of the body.
The respiratory system works in conjunction with the _____ system to deliver oxygen to the cells of the body.
a. digestive
b. endocrine
c. nervous
d. cardiovascular
Answer: D
Which organ of the respiratory system is used by both the respiratory and digestive systems?
Which organ of the respiratory system is used by both the respiratory and digestive systems?
a. pharynx
b. stomach
c. trachea
d. nasal cavity
Answer: A
Which of the following is NOT an organ of the respiratory system?
Which of the following is NOT an organ of the respiratory system?
a. lungs
b. esophagus
c. trachea
d. nasal cavity
Answer: B
Which of the following is NOT one of the vital signs?
Which of the following is NOT one of the vital signs?
a. heart rate
b. respirations
c. urine volume
d. temperature
Answer: C
Which of the following lung capacities is the volume of air that can be maximally exhaled after a maximum inhalation?
Which of the following lung capacities is the volume of air that can be maximally exhaled after a maximum inhalation?
a. inspiratory capacity
b. functional residual capacity
c. vital capacity
d. total lung capacity
Answer: C
Which of the following lung volumes is the amount of air that enters and exits the lungs during a single quiet breath?
Which of the following lung volumes is the amount of air that enters and exits the lungs during a single quiet breath?
a. tidal volume
b. inspiratory reserve volume
c. residual volume
d. expiratory reserve volume
Answer: A
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
a. apex-tip top of lung
b. base-bottom section of lung
c. hilum-area where trachea enters the lungs
d. pleura-sac around lungs
Answer: C
Which of the following does not make up part of the lungs?
Which of the following does not make up part of the lungs?
a. alveoli
b. bronchioles
c. trachea
d. bronchi
Answer: C
Which of the following statements regarding bronchial tubes is NOT true?
Which of the following statements regarding bronchial tubes is NOT true?
a. Each bronchus is surrounded by pulmonary capillaries.
b. Gas exchange occurs across the respiratory membrane.
c. The trachea splits into a left and right main bronchus
d. Alveoli are located at the tip ends of bronchioles.
Answer: A
The respiratory membrane consists of:
The respiratory membrane consists of:
a. walls of alveoli and mucus membrane
b. walls of alveoli and capillaries
c. pulmonary capillary bed
d. walls of bronchioles and alveoli
Answer: B
Which of the following pairs of terms is mismatched?
Which of the following pairs of terms is mismatched?
a. trachea-windpipe
b. larynx-voice box
c. pharynx-throat
d. bronchioles-air sacs
Answer: D
The opening through the vocal cords is called the:
The opening through the vocal cords is called the:
a. glottis
b. adenoids
c. epiglottis
d. thyroid cartilage
Answer: A
The tonsils in the throat are considered to be part of the:
The tonsils in the throat are considered to be part of the:
a. digestive system
b. respiratory system
c. endocrine system
d. lymphatic system
Answer: D
The upper section of the pharynx is called:
The upper section of the pharynx is called:
a. oropharynx
b. nasopharynx
c. laryngopharynx
d. hypopharynx
Answer: B
Which of the following is NOT a function of the nasal cavity?
Which of the following is NOT a function of the nasal cavity?
a. warms inhaled air
b. humidifies inhaled air
c. removes dirt and dust from inhaled air
d. removes oxygen from inhaled air
Answer: D
The nasal cavity is divided down the middle by the:
The nasal cavity is divided down the middle by the:
a. palate
b. sinuses
c. nasal septum
d. nares
Answer: C
Which of the following statements regarding respiration is NOT true?
Which of the following statements regarding respiration is NOT true?
a. Oxygen is needed for the body cells' metabolism.
b. Carbon dioxide moves from the blood into the cells.
c. Oxygen moves from the alveoli into the bloodstream.
d. Carbon dioxide is the byproduct of metabolism.
Answer: B
External respiration refers to the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between:
External respiration refers to the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between:
a. alveoli and bloodstream
b. outside air and cells of the body
c. bloodstream and cells
d. lungs and heart
Answer: A
Which of the following is NOT a part of the process of respiration?
Which of the following is NOT a part of the process of respiration?
a. external respiration
b. thoracic respiration
c. ventilation
d. internal respiration
Answer: B
The respiratory system, in conjunction with the cardiovascular system, delivers _____to the cells of the body.
The respiratory system, in conjunction with the cardiovascular system, delivers _____to the cells of the body.
a. oxygen
b. nutrients
c. carbon dioxide
d. sodium
Answer: A
Which of the following medications helps to block an allergic reaction?
Which of the following medications helps to block an allergic reaction?
a. antihistamine
b. corticosteroid
c. protease inhibitor
d. immunosuppressant
Answer: A
Which of the following medications is useful for treating autoimmune diseases?
Which of the following medications is useful for treating autoimmune diseases?
a. antihistamine
b. corticosteroid
c. protease inhibitor
d. immunosuppressant
Answer: B
Which of the following medications is required to prevent rejection of a transplanted organ?
Which of the following medications is required to prevent rejection of a transplanted organ?
a. antihistamine
b. corticosteroid
c. protease inhibitor
d. immunosuppressant
Answer: D
Which of the following medications keeps a virus from successfully reproducing?
Which of the following medications keeps a virus from successfully reproducing?
a. antihistamine
b. corticosteroid
c. protease inhibitor
d. immunosuppressant
Answer: C
Which of the following medications prevents blood clot formation?
Which of the following medications prevents blood clot formation?
a. hematinic
b. anticoagulant
c. antiplatelet
d. thombolytic agent
Answer: B
Which of the following medications does NOT prolong bleeding time?
Which of the following medications does NOT prolong bleeding time?
a. hematinic
b. anticoagulant
c. antiplatelet
d. thombolytic agent
Answer: A
Which of the following medications dissolves an existing clot?
Which of the following medications dissolves an existing clot?
a. hematinic
b. anticoagulant
c. antiplatelet
d. thombolytic agent
Answer: D
Which of the following abbreviations is NOT a blood test?
Which of the following abbreviations is NOT a blood test?
a. BMT
b. HCT
c. PT
d. CBC
Answer: A
Which of the following abbreviations is a machine for performing blood tests?
Which of the following abbreviations is a machine for performing blood tests?
a. RBC
b. SMAC
c. PA
d. HGB
Answer: B
Which of the following abbreviations is a test for HIV-AIDS?
Which of the following abbreviations is a test for HIV-AIDS?
a. GVHD
b. KS
c. ELISA
d. PCP
Answer: C
Which of the following therapeutic procedures gives a patient an injection of antibodies in order to treat a disease?
Which of the following therapeutic procedures gives a patient an injection of antibodies in order to treat a disease?
a. immunization
b. Monospot
c. vaccination
d. immunotherapy
Answer: D
A(n) _____transfusion consists of blood stored from the patient's own body.
A(n) _____transfusion consists of blood stored from the patient's own body.
a. analogous
b. autologous
c. self
d. homologous
Answer: B
Which of the following therapeutic procedures consists of removing plasma from the body and replacing it with donor plasma?
Which of the following therapeutic procedures consists of removing plasma from the body and replacing it with donor plasma?
a. plasma transfusion
b. phlebotomy
c. plasmapheresis
d. plasma aspiration
Answer: C
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
a. Monospot—test for Hodgkin's disease
b. scratch test—allergy test
c. lymphangiography—X-ray sowing the lymph vessels
d. Western blot—tests for the presence of antibodies against the HIV virus
Answer: A
Which of the following blood tests checks for bacterial growth?
Which of the following blood tests checks for bacterial growth?
a. erythrocyte sedimentation rate
b. culture and sensitivity
c. hematocrit
d. pro-time
Answer: B
Which of the following blood tests is an indicator of the presence of an inflammatory disease?
Which of the following blood tests is an indicator of the presence of an inflammatory disease?
a. erythrocyte sedimentation rate
b. culture and sensitivity
c. hematocrit
d. pro-time
Answer: A
Which of the following blood tests measures the volume of red blood cells within the total volume of blood?
Which of the following blood tests measures the volume of red blood cells within the total volume of blood?
a. erythrocyte sedimentation rate
b. culture and sensitivity
c. hematocrit
d. pro-time
Answer: C
Which of the following blood tests measures how long it takes for a clot to form?
Which of the following blood tests measures how long it takes for a clot to form?
a. erythrocyte sedimentation rate
b. culture and sensitivity
c. hematocrit
d. pro-time
Answer: D
Which blood test examines the shape of red blood cells?
Which blood test examines the shape of red blood cells?
a. red cell morphology
b. red blood cell count
c. hemoglobin
d. complete blood count
Answer: A
Which of the following blood tests is NOT part of a complete blood count?
Which of the following blood tests is NOT part of a complete blood count?
a. red cell count
b. hemoglobin
c. clotting time
d. hematocrit
Answer: C
Which of the following conditions is cancerous?
Which of the following conditions is cancerous?
a. Hodgkin's disease
b. lymphadenitis
c. AIDs—related complex
d. sarcoidosis
Answer: A
Which of the following conditions is an autoimmune disease?
Which of the following conditions is an autoimmune disease?
a. Kaposi's sarcoma
b. sarcoidosis
c. elephantiasis
d. mononucleosis
Answer: B
Which of the following is a life threatening allergic reaction?
Which of the following is a life threatening allergic reaction?
a. elephantiasis
b. sarcoidosis
c. anaphylactic shock
d. AIDs—related complex
Answer: C
Which is the sever itching associated with hives?
Which is the sever itching associated with hives?
a. anaphylactic
b. dyscrasia
c. lymphedema
d. urticaria
Answer: D
Which of the following conditions is swelling caused by a blockage of lymph flow?
Which of the following conditions is swelling caused by a blockage of lymph flow?
a. lymphedema
b. lymphangioma
c. lymphadenitis
d. lymphangiography
Answer: A
Which of the following is a term meaning a substance that causes an allergic reaction?
Which of the following is a term meaning a substance that causes an allergic reaction?
a. atypical protein
b. allerergen
c. allergy
d. allergist
Answer: B
Which of the following is a general term meaning a blood disease?
Which of the following is a general term meaning a blood disease?
a. hematopathy
b. hematology
c. dyscrasia
d. hemostasis
Answer: C
The mixture of plasma and blood cells is called:
The mixture of plasma and blood cells is called:
a. packed blood
b. serum
c. transfusion
d. whole blood
Answer: D
Which of the following is NOT an inherited condition?
Which of the following is NOT an inherited condition?
a. leukemia
b. sickle cell anemia
c. thalassemia
d. hemophilia
Answer: A
Which of the following conditions is a cancer?
Which of the following conditions is a cancer?
a. polycythemia vera
b. septicemia
c. leukemia
d. pernicious anemia
Answer: C
Which of the following conditions is a blood infection?
Which of the following conditions is a blood infection?
a. thalassemia
b. septicemica
c. leukemia
d. hemophilia
Answer: B
Which type of anemia is caused by a vitamin B12 deficiency?
Which type of anemia is caused by a vitamin B12 deficiency?
a. aplastic anemia
b. hemolytic anemia
c. hypochromic anemia
d. pernicious anemia
Answer: D
Which anemia results from the loss of functioning bone marrow?
Which anemia results from the loss of functioning bone marrow?
a. aplastic anemia
b. hemolytic anemia
c. hypochromic anemia
d. sickle cell anemia
Answer: A
Which type of anemia results from the excessive loss of erythrocytes?
Which type of anemia results from the excessive loss of erythrocytes?
a. pernicious anemia
b. iron-deficiency anemia
c. hemolytic anemia
d. thalassemia
Answer: C
Which condition results in thick blood as a result of having too many red blood cells?
Which condition results in thick blood as a result of having too many red blood cells?
a. hemophilia
b. polycythemia vera
c. hyperlipidemia
d. thalassemia
Answer: B
Which of the following terms means to convert a liquid to a gel or solid?
Which of the following terms means to convert a liquid to a gel or solid?
a. coagulate
b. clot
c. hemostasis
d. hematopoiesis
Answer: A
Which of the following statements is the most important standard precaution?
Which of the following statements is the most important standard precaution?
a. Wash your hands.
b. Wear Gloves.
c. Wear a nonpermeable gown or apron.
d. Wear a mask and protective eyewear.
Answer: A
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
a. nosocomial infection—acquired outside the hospital
b. reinfection—repeat infection by the same pathogen
c. cross infection—infection acquired directly from another person
d. self-inoculation—infection spreads from one part of a person's body to a different area
Answer: A
Which of the following statements regarding antigens is NOT true?
Which of the following statements regarding antigens is NOT true?
a. Antigens are foreign proteins.
b. Antigens are marked for phagocytosis by an antibody.
c. Antigens stimulate the immune response.
d. Antigens hide a pathogen from lymphocytes.
Answer: D
Which of the following is NOT part of the immune response?
Which of the following is NOT part of the immune response?
a. exposure to a pathogen
b. production of antibodies by A lymphocytes
c. phagocytosis of infectious agents
d. stimulation of natural killer cells to destroy pathogens
Answer: B
Which of the following is NOT an example of acquired immunity?
Which of the following is NOT an example of acquired immunity?
a. antibodies crossing the placenta from the baby to the mother
b. antibodies formed during direct exposure to a pathogen
c. immunizations
d. an antitoxin injection
Answer: A
Which of the following statements regarding natural immunity is NOT true?
Which of the following statements regarding natural immunity is NOT true?
a. Natural immunity includes receiving antibodies from the mother through the placenta.
b. It does not require prior exposure to the pathogen.
c. A good example of natural immunity is the macrophage.
d. Natural immunity mechanisms are not specific to any particular pathogen.
Answer: A
Which of the following statements regarding the thymus gland is NOT true?
Which of the following statements regarding the thymus gland is NOT true?
a. The thymus is located in the mediastinum of the chest.
b. The thymus secretes thymosin
c. The thymus is important for the proper development of the immune system.
d. The tymus increases in size throughout life.
Answer: D
Which of the following is NOT a function of the spleen?
Which of the following is NOT a function of the spleen?
a. The spleen contains a large population of macrophages.
b. The spleen produces new erythrocytes.
c. The spleen is not a vital organ; a person can live without a spleen.
d. The spleen consists of slow moving blood sinuses.
Answer: B
Which of the following statements regarding the tonsils is NOT true?
Which of the following statements regarding the tonsils is NOT true?
a. The palatine tonsils are located in the nasal cavity.
b. The tonsils are composed of lymphatic tissue.
c. The tonsils remove pathogens for the digestive and respiratory systems.
d. Sometimes the tonsils have to be removed if they become chronically infected.
Answer: A
Which of the following statements regarding lymph nodes is NOT true?
Which of the following statements regarding lymph nodes is NOT true?
a. The house lymphocytes and antibodies.
b. They remove pathogens and cell debris from lymph.
c. Lymph nodes are found only in a certain few areas of the body, like the neck.
d. They trap and destroy cancerous cells.
Answer: C
Which lymph glands are found in the groin region?
Which lymph glands are found in the groin region?
a. axillary
b. mediastinal
c. cervical
d. inguinal
Answer: D
Which of the following statements regarding lymphatic vessels is NOT true?
Which of the following statements regarding lymphatic vessels is NOT true?
a. The smallest lymphatic vessels are called lymphatic capillaries.
b. The thoracic duct trains the right arm and right side of the neck and chest.
c. Lymphatic vessels have valves to insure forward movement of lymph.
d. There are only two large lymphatic ducts, the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct.
Answer: B
Which is NOT a function of the lymphatic and immune system?
Which is NOT a function of the lymphatic and immune system?
a. Transport fats absorbed by the small intestines.
b. Primary defense against the invasion of pathogens.
c. Assist in the blood clotting process.
d. Collect excess tissue fluid and return it to the circulatory system.
Answer: C
Which of the following is NOT part of the lymphatic system?
Which of the following is NOT part of the lymphatic system?
a. liver
b. spleen
c. lymph nodes
d. lymphatic vessels
Answer: A
Which blood type is called the Universal Recipient?
Which blood type is called the Universal Recipient?
a. Type A
b. Type B
c. Type O
d. Type AB
Answer: D
Which blood type is called the Universal Donor?
Which blood type is called the Universal Donor?
a. Type A
b. Type B
c. Type O
d. Type AB
Answer: C
Which of the following statements regarding blood types is NOT true?
Which of the following statements regarding blood types is NOT true?
a. Type A blood makes antibodies against Type B blood
b. Type O blood makes antibodies against Type AB blood
c. Type B blood makes antibodies against Type A blood
d. Type AB blood does not make antibodies
Answer: B
Which of the following statements regarding hemostasis is NOT true?
Which of the following statements regarding hemostasis is NOT true?
a. Platelets release thromboplastin
b. Thromboplastin reacts with prothrombin to form thrombin
c. Thrombin works to convert fibrinogen to fibrin
d. Fibrin then converts platelets into a clot
Answer: D
Which of the following statements regarding leukocytes is NOT true?
Which of the following statements regarding leukocytes is NOT true?
a. A leukocyte has a large nucleus
b. Agranulocytes have granules in their cytoplashm
c. Leukocytes protect the body agains pathogens
d. There are five different types of leukocytes
Answer: B
Which of the following statements regarding the different types of leukocytes is NOT true?
Which of the following statements regarding the different types of leukocytes is NOT true?
a. Monocytes release histamine
b. Eosinophils destroy parasites
c. Neutrophils are phagocytic
d. Lymphocytes protect through immunity activity
Answer: A
Which of the following is a pathogen?
Which of the following is a pathogen?
a. foreign material
b. bacteria
c. biruses
d. all are pathogens
Answer: D
Which of the following statements regarding erythrocytes is NOT true?
Which of the following statements regarding erythrocytes is NOT true?
a. Hemoglobin is an iron containing molecule inside red blood cells.
b. Erythrocytes live an average of 120 days
c. Bilirubin from worn out red blood cells is recycled by the liver.
d. Worn out erythrocytes are removed by the spleen
Answer: C
Red Blood cells appear red because:
Red Blood cells appear red because:
a. of the size of their nucleus
b. they contain hemoglobin
c. they contain bilirubin
d. they transport oxygen
Answer: B
Which of the following is NOT a plasma protein?
Which of the following is NOT a plasma protein?
a. albumin
b. sodium
c. globulins
d. fibrinogen
Answer: B
Which of the following substances is NOT transported by plasma?
Which of the following substances is NOT transported by plasma?
a. oxygen
b. glucose
c. calcium
d. amino acids
Answer: A
Which of the following is not correctly matched?
Which of the following is not correctly matched?
a. red cells—transporting substances
b. leukocytes—protect the body from invasion
c. plasma—tissue repair
d. platelets—control bleeding
Answer: C
Blood cells are produced in the:
Blood cells are produced in the:
a. spleen
b. thymus gland
c. red bone marrow
d. liver
Answer: C
The watery part of blood is called:
The watery part of blood is called:
a. red cells
b. plasma
c. white cells
d. platelets
Answer: B
Which is NOT one of the formed elements of the blood?
Which is NOT one of the formed elements of the blood?
a. red cells
b. platelets
c. white cells
d. plasma
Answer: D
Which term means to cut into the pleen?
Which term means to cut into the pleen?
a. splenototmy
b. splenectomy
c. splenoplasty
d. splnopexy
Answer: A
Which term means lymph gland inflammation?
Which term means lymph gland inflammation?
a. lymphangiitis
b. lymphadenopathy
c. lymphadenitis
d. lympangiogram
Answer: C
Which term means too few red (cells)?
Which term means too few red (cells)?
a. leukocytosis
b. erythrocytosis
c. hematocytosis
d. erythropenia
Answer: D
Which term means too many white cells?
Which term means too many white cells?
a. pancytopenia
b. leukocytosis
c. hematocytosis
d. leukocytopenia
Answer: B
Which term means clotting cell?
Which term means clotting cell?
a. erythrocyte
b. leukocyte
c. granulocyte
d. thrombocyte
Answer: D
Which term means fiber producing?
Which term means fiber producing?
a. fibrogenic
b. fibrinogen
c. fibrinolysis
d. fibrotic
Answer: B
Which term means pertaining to blood?
Which term means pertaining to blood?
a. sanguinous
b. hematic
c. hematologic
d. both a and b
Answer: D
Which term means blood destruction?
Which term means blood destruction?
a. hemolytic
b. hematolytic
c. hemolysis
d. both a and c
Answer: D
Which term means red (cell) production?
Which term means red (cell) production?
a. erythropoiesis
b. hematopoiesis
c. leukopoiesis
d. thrombopoiesis
Answer: A
Which term means disease producing?
Which term means disease producing?
a. pathological
b. diseasopathy
c. pathogenic
d. pathology
Answer: C
Expenses, maintenance
Expenses, maintenance
Cost of cleaning, supplies, utilities, tenant services, and other administrative costs for properties that produce income.
Expenses, fixed
Expenses, fixed
Recurring property expenses such as real estate taxes or hazard insurance.
Exemption:
Exemption:
Provision by which a law or a rule is not applicable to a certain group or person.
Executed contract
Executed contract
Contract for which all terms and conditions have been completed, making it legally enforceable.
Executor
Executor
Person named in a will to carry out the provisions of the will; also called a personal representative.
Person selected in a will to carry out its provisions.
Execute
Execute
(a) Signing an instrument and taking other steps that may be necessary for validation.
(b) To perform or complete.
Exculpatory clause
Exculpatory clause
Provision in a mortgage relieving the borrower of personal liability on the loan (for certain defaults or problems) if the borrower voluntarily surrenders the property to the lender.
Exclusive agency listing
Exclusive agency listing
Employment contract providing one broker the right to sell property for a definite period, while also enabling owner to sell it without having to pay commission.
Excess land
Excess land
Part of a parcel of land that does not add to the value of the property.
Eviction, Constructive
Eviction, Constructive
Act of the landlord that interferes with the tenant's quiet enjoyment of the property to such an extent that the tenant is forced to move out.
Eviction, Actual
Eviction, Actual
Forcing someone physically from a property or preventing them from re-entering the real property or using lawful procedure to make someone leave the premises.
Eviction
Eviction
Dispossession through the process of law.
Et ux
Et ux
Abbreviation for the Latin phrase "et uxor" which means "and wife."
Estoppel certificate
Estoppel certificate
Document that prevents a person who signs it from later asserting facts different from mentioned in the document; also called an estoppel letter.
Estoppel
Estoppel
Legal principle that restricts a party from negating or asserting a certain fact owing to that party's previous actions or statements.
Estate for years
Estate for years
Interest in real property that permits possession for certain, set time period.
Estate of inheritance
Estate of inheritance
Estate that may be passed on to the heirs of the holder, as in a fee simple.
Estate at will
Estate at will
Occupancy of real estate by a tenant for an indefinite period, which either party can terminated at will
Estate at sufferance
Estate at sufferance
Unlawful occupation of a property by a tenant after their lease has terminated.
Estate
Estate
Interest held by the property owners, it may be a freehold or a leasehold property.
Escrow instructions
Escrow instructions
Directions that a party to a transaction gives to an escrow agent specifying the terms under which the escrow is to be conducted.
Escrow agent
Escrow agent
Neutral third party entrusted by a seller and purchaser to hold a something of value pending the fulfillment of conditions needed to close a transaction.
Escrow
Escrow
Agreement that a neutral third party will hold something of value (money or a deed) until the provisions of a transaction or a contract may be carried out.
Escheat
Escheat
Reverting of a property to the state in case there are no capable heirs found.
Escalation clause
Escalation clause
Provision in a lease agreement that allows an increase in payments on the basis of an increase in an index, such as the consumer price index.
Erosion
Erosion
Process where the surface of the land wears away by the actions of water or wind.
Equity
Equity
Difference between the current market value of the property and the liens against the property.
Equitable right of redemption
Equitable right of redemption
Real estate owner's right to take back property after default but before foreclosure, by paying all debt, costs and interest.
Equitable remedy
Equitable remedy
Judgment granted by a civil lawsuit to a complainant that is not an award of money/damages which could be an injunction, rescission, or a specific performance.
Equal Credit Opportunity Act
Equal Credit Opportunity Act
Federal law prohibiting lenders from discriminating against loan applicants on the basis of race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, or age, or that the applicant's income is generated from public assistance.
EPA
EPA
Environmental Protection Agency
Entitlement
Entitlement
In terms of a VA loan, it is the amount of the borrower's guaranty.
Encumbrance
Encumbrance
Non-possessory interest in real property, such as a mortgage (loan), a lien (voluntary or involuntary), an easement, or a restrictive covenant that limits the title.
Encumber
Encumber
Placing a lien or encumbrance against the title to a property.
Encroachment
Encroachment
Unlawful intrusion onto neighborhood property, often due to a mistake regarding boundary location.
Eminent domain
Eminent domain
Right of the government to take title to real property for public use by condemnation. The property owner receives just compensation for property.
Emblements, Doctrine of Law allowing an agricultural tenant to enter the land for harvesting the crops even after the lease period ends.
Emblements, Doctrine of
Law allowing an agricultural tenant to enter the land for harvesting the crops even after the lease period ends.
Ejectment
Ejectment
Legal action through which possession of real property is recovered from someone who has illegally taken possession of it; also called an eviction.
Effective age
Effective age
Age of a structure as its condition indicates and the remainder of its usefulness (as opposed to its actual age). Effective age of a building may be increased if maintained well.
Economic obsolescence
Economic obsolescence
Loss of value due to factors stemming from beyond the property.
Economic life
Economic life
Time period when an improved property yields a return on investment apart from the rent due to the land itself; also called the useful life.
Easement in gross
Easement in gross
Easement benefitting a person rather than a piece of land. There is a dominant tenant, without a dominant tenement.
Easement by necessity
Easement by necessity
Such an easement is most commonly implied in favor of grantees that do not have any access to their land except over the land owned by the grantor.
Easement by implication
Easement by implication
Easement that is created by law so as to provide access to a landlocked parcel of land.
Easement by express reservation
Easement by express reservation
When an easement is created in a deed by which the property is divided by the landowner, the servant tenement is transferred while the dominant tenement is retained.
Easement by express grant
Easement by express grant
Easement that is voluntarily created in a deed, will, or other written instrument.
Easement, Appurtenant
Easement, Appurtenant
An appurtenant easement is a right to use an adjoining property. The one benefitting from the easement is the dominant tenement.
Easement, Access
Easement, Access
An easement that allows the holder of the easement to reach (and leave) his property (which is the dominant tenement) by passing through the servant tenement; also called an easement for ingress and egress.
Easement
Easement
Right given to another person or entity to trespass upon property that is not owned by that person or entity.
Earnest money
Earnest money
Deposit made by a real estate buyer demonstrating her good faith.
The circulatory system transports wastes to all the following organs except:
The circulatory system transports wastes to all the following organs except:
a. kidney
b. lung
c. liver
d. rectum
Answer: D
Which of the following abbreviations stands for a surgical procedure?
Which of the following abbreviations stands for a surgical procedure?
a. CABG
b. MI
c. CHF
d. HTN
Answer: A
Which of the following abbreviations stands for a heart attack?
Which of the following abbreviations stands for a heart attack?
a. HTN
b. MI
c. CAD
d. PVD
Answer: B
Which of the following medications does NOT treat hypertension?
Which of the following medications does NOT treat hypertension?
a. ACE inhibitors
b. calcium channel blockers
c. vasoconstrictors
d. beta blockers
Answer: C
Which medication increases the force of cardiac muscle contractions?
Which medication increases the force of cardiac muscle contractions?
a. diuretics
b. antiarrhythmics
c. beta blockers
d. cardiotonic
Answer: D
Which surgical procedure would be used to join together two arteries?
Which surgical procedure would be used to join together two arteries?
a. bypass graft
b. anastomosis
c. endarterectomy
d. arterial stent
Answer: B
Which surgical procedure is used to treat varicose veins?
Which surgical procedure is used to treat varicose veins?
a. stent placement
b. embolectomy
c. ligation and stripping
d. aneurysmectomy
Answer: C
Which surgical procedure removes the damaged inner lining of an artery?
Which surgical procedure removes the damaged inner lining of an artery?
a. endarterectomy
b. arterial anastomosis
c. ligation and stripping
d. embolectomy
Answer: A
Which therapeutic device is used to treat ventricular fibrillation?
Which therapeutic device is used to treat ventricular fibrillation?
a. pericardiocentesis
b. implantable cardioverter
c. extracorporeal circulation
d. pacemaker
Answer: B
Which procedure uses a heart long machine?
Which procedure uses a heart long machine?
a. cardiopulmonary resuscitation
b. Holter monitor
c. extracorporeal circulation
d. stress testing
Answer: C
Which surgical procedure uses a blood vessel obtained from another part of the body?
Which surgical procedure uses a blood vessel obtained from another part of the body?
a. coronary artery bypass graft
b. arterial anastomosis
c. aneurysmectomy
d. intracoronary artery stent
Answer: A
Which of the following diagnostic procedures is able to visualize internal cardiac structures?
Which of the following diagnostic procedures is able to visualize internal cardiac structures?
a. cardiac scan
b. coronary angiography
c. electrocardiography
d. echocardiography
Answer: D
Which of the following diagnostic procedures measures cardiac fitness?
Which of the following diagnostic procedures measures cardiac fitness?
a. cardiac enzymes
b. serum lipoprotein test
c. stress test
d. coronary angiography
Answer: C
Which of the following diagnostic procedures is a blood test?
Which of the following diagnostic procedures is a blood test?
a. Holter monitor
b. cardiac enzymes
c. cardiac scan
d. venography
Answer: B
Which of the following conditions is periodic ischemic attacks affecting the extremities of the body?
Which of the following conditions is periodic ischemic attacks affecting the extremities of the body?
a. Raynaud's phenomenon
b. patent ductus arteriosus
c. thrombos
d. varicose veins
Answer: A
Which of the following conditions is caused by inflamed veins causing the formation of blood clots within the vein?
Which of the following conditions is caused by inflamed veins causing the formation of blood clots within the vein?
a. hemangioma
b. varicose veins
c. polyarteritis
d. thombophlebitis
Answer: D
Varicose veins in the anal region are called:
Varicose veins in the anal region are called:
a. hemorrhoids
b. varicosities
c. hemangioma
d. aneurysm
Answer: A
A weakened and ballooned artery is called a(n):
A weakened and ballooned artery is called a(n):
a. arteriosclerosis
b. aneurysm
c. varicosity
d. atherosclerosis
Answer: B
Which of the following conditions is NOT a congenital anomaly?
Which of the following conditions is NOT a congenital anomaly?
a. coarctation of the aorta
b. patent ductus arteriosus
c. aneurysm
d. tetralogy of Fallot
Answer: C
Which of the following is a floating clot that has broken off a clot somewhere else in the body?
Which of the following is a floating clot that has broken off a clot somewhere else in the body?
a. embolus
b. thrombophlebitis
c. hemangioma
d. thrombus
Answer: A
The most common form of arteriosclerosis is:
The most common form of arteriosclerosis is:
a. polyarteritis
b. pericarditis
c. atherosclerosis
d. atheroma
Answer: C
Valve stenosis means the valve is:
Valve stenosis means the valve is:
a. too large
b. too loose
c. too small
d. too stiff
Answer: D
In which of the following conditions is a heart valve too loose?
In which of the following conditions is a heart valve too loose?
a. valvorrhexis
b. valve prolaspse
c. valvulitis
d. valve stenosis
Answer: B
Fibrillation means that:
Fibrillation means that:
a. the heart beat is dangerously irregular
b. the heart is beating too fast
c. the heart has stopped beating
d. the heart has suffered a heart attack
Answer: A
In bacterial endocarditis, the mass of bacteria that forms is referred to as:
In bacterial endocarditis, the mass of bacteria that forms is referred to as:
a. hemangioma
b. bruit
c. pyoma
d. vegetation
Answer: D
In which condition is the heart muscle too weak to pump efficiently?
In which condition is the heart muscle too weak to pump efficiently?
a. heart valve prolapsed
b. congestive heart failure
c. myocarditis
d. endocarditis
Answer: B
Which condition is the severe chest pain associated with myocardial ischemia?
Which condition is the severe chest pain associated with myocardial ischemia?
a. congestive heart failure
b. myocardial infarction
c. angina pectoris
d. coronary artery disease
Answer: C
The complete stopping of heart activity is called:
The complete stopping of heart activity is called:
a. cardiac arrest
b. fibrillation
c. bundle branch block
d. angina pectoris
Answer: A
What is the name of the steel tube placed within a blood vessel?
What is the name of the steel tube placed within a blood vessel?
a. bruit
b. stent
c. plaque
d. cardoverter
Answer: B
Streptokinase and tissue type plasminogen activator are used for:
Streptokinase and tissue type plasminogen activator are used for:
a. hypertension
b. defibrillation
c. open heart surgery
d. thrombolytic therapy
Answer: D
Which term means fast heart beat?
Which term means fast heart beat?
a. fibrillation
b. tachycardia
c. hypercardia
d. bradycardia
Answer: B
Which abbreviation stands for high blood pressure?
Which abbreviation stands for high blood pressure?
a. CSD
b. HDL
c. BP
d. HTN
Answer: D
Which abbreviation is an arrhythmia?
Which abbreviation is an arrhythmia?
a. MR
b. ECC
c. Vfib
d. MI
Answer: C
Which term is misspelled?
Which term is misspelled?
a. atherosclerosis
b. myocardial
c. phleboitis
d. interventricular
Answer: C
Which term is misspelled?
Which term is misspelled?
a. angioplasty
b. arteriorrhexis
c. bradycardia
d. valvulitis
Answer: A
Which of the following terms means to flow backwards?
Which of the following terms means to flow backwards?
a. infarct
b. regurgitation
c. stent
d. palpitation
Answer: B
Which term means a yellow fatty deposit of lipids in an artery?
Which term means a yellow fatty deposit of lipids in an artery?
a. perfusion
b. bruit
c. plaque
d. stent
Answer: C
Which of the following terms means pounding, racing heartbeats?
Which of the following terms means pounding, racing heartbeats?
a. palpitations
b. bruit
c. murmur
d. plaque
Answer: A
Which term means listening to the sounds within the body?
Which term means listening to the sounds within the body?
a. stethoscope
b. auscultation
c. bruit
d. murmur
Answer: B
Which terms means process of recording a vessel?
Which terms means process of recording a vessel?
a. angiogram
b. arteriography
c. hemangiography
d. angiography
Answer: D
Which term means high pressure?
Which term means high pressure?
a. hypermanometer
b. hypotension
c. hypertension
d. supratension
Answer: C
A heart specialist would be called a:
A heart specialist would be called a:
a. cardiologist
b. phlebotomist
c. coronologist
d. hemangiologist
Answer: A
Which combining form is for a structure NOT found inside the heart?
Which combining form is for a structure NOT found inside the heart?
a. atri/o
b. phleb/o
c. valvul/o
d. ventricul/o
Answer: B
Which terms means enlarged heart?
Which terms means enlarged heart?
a. cardiorrhexis
b. cardiostenosis
c. cardiosclerosis
d. cardiomegaly
Answer: B
Which term means hardened artery?
Which term means hardened artery?
a. arteriosclerosis
b. arteriostenosis
c. angiosclerosis
d. artherosclerosis
Answer: A
Which term means pertaining to between the atria?
Which term means pertaining to between the atria?
a. intratrial
b. interarterial
c. interatrial
d. transatrial
Answer: C
Which combing form means chest?
Which combing form means chest?
a. angi/o
b. steth/o
c. phleb/o
d. sphygm/o
Answer: B
Which of the following statements regarding blood pressure is NOT true?
Which of the following statements regarding blood pressure is NOT true?
a. Blood pressure is highest when the heart is relaxed
b. It is the measurement of the force exerted by blood against the wall of the blood vessel
c. The diastolic pressure is the lowest point
d. Blood pressure is affected by the diameter of the blood vessels
Answer: A
The diffusion of oxygen and nutrients from the blood into the body tissues occurs in the:
The diffusion of oxygen and nutrients from the blood into the body tissues occurs in the:
a. heart
b. aorta
c. lungs
d. capillary bed
Answer: D
Which artery carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs?
Which artery carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs?
a. systemic
b. aortic
c. lungs
d. capillary bed
Answer: C
Which blood vessels have the thickest smooth muscle wall?
Which blood vessels have the thickest smooth muscle wall?
a. capillaries
b. arteries
c. veins
d. venules
Answer: B
The heart receives its blood supply from the:
The heart receives its blood supply from the:
a. coronary arteries
b. coronary sinus
c. aorta
d. ventricles
Answer: A
The smallest arteries are called:
The smallest arteries are called:
a. arteriules
b. capillaries
c. arteriums
d. arterioles
Answer: D
The narrowest blood vessels are called:
The narrowest blood vessels are called:
a. arteries
b. veins
c. capillaries
d. venules
Answer: C
Which structure of the conduction system was formerly called the bundle of His?
Which structure of the conduction system was formerly called the bundle of His?
a. bundle branches
b. atrioventricular bundle
c. atrioventricular node
d. atrioventricular septum
Answer: B
Which of the following statements regarding the conduction system of the heart is NOT true?
Which of the following statements regarding the conduction system of the heart is NOT true?
a. The AV node stimulates the SA node
b. The conduction system stimulates the different chambers of the heart in the correct order
c. Purkinje fibers stimulate the ventricular myocardium
d. The heart rate is regulated by the autonomic nervous system
Answer: A
Which of the following is also known as the pacemaker of the heart?
Which of the following is also known as the pacemaker of the heart?
a. atrioventricular
b. Purkinje fibers
c. atrioventricular bundle
d. sinoatrial node
Answer: D
Which of the following statements regarding blood flow through the heart is NOT true?
Which of the following statements regarding blood flow through the heart is NOT true?
a. The relaxation phase is called diastole
b. The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the lungs
c. The right ventricle receives blood from the right atrium
d. The left ventricle pumps blood to the lungs
Answer: D
The largest artery in the body is the:
The largest artery in the body is the:
a. vena cavae
b. pulmonary artery
c. aorta
d. none of the above
Answer: C
The pulmonary artery:
The pulmonary artery:
a. carries blood away from the heart
b. carries blood away from the lungs
c. carries blood to the body
d. carries to the ventricles
Answer: A
Blood exits the left side of the heart into the:
Blood exits the left side of the heart into the:
a. aorta
b. vena cavae
c. pulmonary vein
d. pulmonary artery
Answer: A
Blood is returned to the right side of the heart by the:
Blood is returned to the right side of the heart by the:
a. aorta
b. vena cavae
c. pulmonary vein
d. pulmonary artery
Answer: B
Which heart valve has two cusps?
Which heart valve has two cusps?
a. mitral
b. aortic
c. tricuspid
d. pulmonary
Answer: A
Which of the following statements regarding heart valves is NOT true?
Which of the following statements regarding heart valves is NOT true?
a. Atrioventricular valves are between an atrium and ventricle.
b. The tricuspid valve is an atrioventricular valve.
c. Semilunar valves are between a ventricle and an artery
d. The mitral valve is a semilunar valve
Answer: D
The mitral valve is also called the ____ valve.
The mitral valve is also called the ____ valve.
a. bicuspid
b. aortic
c. pulmonary
d. tricuspid
Answer: A
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